KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC : KHÓA NGÀY: 14 / 4 / 2011 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

Similar documents
1. A. television B. competition C. information D. population. 2. A. explain B. standard C. aware D. receive


UBND HUYỆN QUỲ HỢP KỲ THI CHỌN GIÁO VIÊN GIỎI THCS PHÒNG GD&ĐT CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC Họ và tên:... Giám thị 1:...

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH TRÌNH ĐỘ B. Thời gian làm bài 90 phút. ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST 90 minutes. Level B (Intermediate) Part 1: READING

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12 Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề kiểm tra có 04 trang, gồm 50 Questions)

Conversation 1. Conversation 2. Conversation 3. Conversation 4. Conversation 5

Write your answers on the question paper. You will have six minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the answer sheet.

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA ĐỊNH KỲ LỚP 5 - HỌC KỲ II

Test 1 КЕТ - ТЕСТ 5. READING AND WRITING (1 hour 10 minutes) PART 1. YOUTH CLUB Under 16s only SCHOOL OFFICE CLOSED FOR LUNCH QUESTIONS 1 5

Đảo ngữ (P1) I don t like him, nor do I hate him: Tôi không thích anh ta và cũng không ghét anh ta

Các dạng câu hỏi được hỗ trợ

You know more than you think you know, just as you know less than you want to know (Oscar Wilde) MODAL VERBS

UNIT 3 Past simple OJ Circle the right words in each sentence.

Units 1 & 2 Pre-exam Practice

LUYỆN TẬP CHỨC NĂNG GIAO TIẾP 1 ID: LINK XEM LỜI GIẢI

Họ và tên thí sinh :... Số báo danh :...

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐÁP ÁN VÀ THANG ĐIỂM ĐỀ THI ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 2 KỸ NĂNG ĐÁNH GIÁ: NGHE HIỂU, ĐỌC HIỂU, VIẾT, NÓI

UPGRADE 8 CONTENTS. It's TEOG Time 2... p. 30. It's TEOG Time 3... p. 44. It's TEOG Time 4... p. 58. It's TEOG Time 5... p. 72

ENGLISH FILE. Progress Test Files Complete the sentences with the correct form of the. 3 Underline the correct word or phrase.

ENGLISH FILE. Progress Test Files Complete the sentences. Use the correct form of the. 3 Complete the sentences with one word.

HIỆN TẠI HOÀN THÀNH. S+ haven't / hasn't + PII have not = haven't has not = hasn't

ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA ANH VĂN ĐẦU KHÓA K16 (Đề 3)

- ENGLISH TEST - INTERMEDIATE 100 QUESTIONS / KEYS

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐH - CĐ LẦN II NĂM HỌC Môn : TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D + A1 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Không kể thời gian phát đề

CAMBRIDGE ENGLISH EMPOWER B1 PROGRESS TEST. Test minutes. Time

Extra 1 Listening Test B1

Primo grado. INVALSI Practice Test for English

USING A VARIETY OF SENTENCE STRUCTURES (1)

9 Guests are allowed to wear casual dress. 11 There's a possibility that the show will be cancelled think that Andrew will collect the money.

Extra 1 Listening Test B1

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐH - CĐ LẦN I NĂM HỌC Môn : TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D + A1 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Không kể thời gian phát đề

PASSIVE VOICE PHẦN Xác định thì ngữ pháp của câu chủ động để tìm thể bị động tương ứng của nó.

KHÓA HỌC PRO-S CÔ VŨ MAI PHƯƠNG MOON.VN

English in Mind. Level 2. Module 1. Guided Dialogues RESOURCES MODULE 1 GUIDED DIALOGUES

1 Family and friends. 1 Play the game with a partner. Throw a dice. Say. How to play

UNIT 3 Comparatives and superlatives

PART A. LISTENING Section 1. Listen to the telephone conversation and answer the questions. You will hear the recording TWICE.

LEVEL PRE-A1 LAAS LANGUAGE ATTAINMENT ASSESSMENT SYSTEM. English English Language Language Examinations Examinations. December 2005 May 2012

THE FIRST SEMESTER TEST TRƯỜNG THCS CHU VĂN AN

ĐỀ THI ÔN TẬP HỌC KỲ I LỚP 12

Which notice (A H) says this (1 5)? For questions 1 5, mark the correct letter A H on your answer sheet. A B C D E F G H

ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC: ***** *****

ENGLISH FILE Pre-intermediate

Speaking and Vocabulary

BÀI TẬP TRẮC NGHIỆM GIAO TIẾP MÔN TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 Năm học: MÔN: ANH LỚP 12 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian giao đề. Họ, tên thí sinh:.lớp:.

Introducing your students to spoken grammar

MODAL VERBS ABILITY. We can t meet them tomorrow. Can you hear that noise?

IELTS Speaking Topic 1.6: Films/Movies

SALE TODAY All toys half price

Chapter 13: Conditionals

Let s Get Together. Reading. Exam Reminder. Exam Task

Conjunctions ******* There are several types of conjunctions in English grammar. They are:

My interests. Vocabulary. Free-time activities. Let s go to the new pizza place. Good idea! I m really hungry. What are you drawing?

Twelve months ago Robin Parker left his job at an

SỞ GD - ĐT KHÁNH HÒA ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

PART A. LISTENING Section 1. Listen to the telephone conversation and answer the questions. You will hear the recording TWICE.

IELTS Speaking Topic 1.7: Music

A is going usually B is usually going C usually goes D goes usually

1 Unit friendship TEST. Vocabulary. 6. A:... is the party going to start? B: At three.

Romeo and Juliet. a Play and Film Study Guide. Student s Book

0510 ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút Họ, tên thí sinh:... SBD:... (Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)

Họ tên học sinh:...sbd:...

Can could Be were ( cho tất cả các ngôi)

My time. Unit Read and listen. Lesson 1. There's NOTHING to do! I'm so bored... That's OK. You can use these. They're my brother's.

Jahrgangsstufentest. an bayerischen Realschulen

8 HERE AND THERE _OUT_BEG_SB.indb 68 13/09/ :41

TEST ONE. Singing Star Showing this week. !The Wild Wheel Ride! Indoor tennis centre. RACING CAR TRACK To drive, children must be 1 metre or more

ADVERBIAL CLAUSE - MỆNH ĐỀ TRẠNG NGỮ

TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ HỮU TRÁC 2. ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG LẦN 1 NĂM 2010 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

TEST OF ENGLISH FOR EDUCATIONAL PURPOSES. Practice Test 2 LANGUAGE KNOWLEDGE QUESTION BOOKLET

LEVEL B Week 10-Weekend Homework

JETSET (JET Version) Reading

Language at work Present simple

GUIA DE ESTUDIO PARA EL ETS DE SEGUNDO SEMESTRE.

Where are the three friends?... What is the girl wearing?... Find the true sentence...

I no longer live with my parents. => I used to live with my parents. 1. We don't listen to long songs anymore.

CHUYÊN ðề 3: NON FINITE VERBS

THE 'ZERO' CONDITIONAL

BỘ ĐỀ MẪU KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Grammar, Vocabulary, and Pronunciation

Studium Języków Obcych

FCE (B2): REPHRASING 50 PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR THE CAMBRIDGE FIRST CERTIFICATE EXAM

3 rd CSE Unit 1. mustn t and have to. should and must. 1 Write sentences about the signs. 1. You mustn t smoke

ĐIỀN TỪ VÀO ĐOẠN VĂN Part 4

Elementary Podcast Support Pack Series 2 episode 9

DANH ĐỘNG TỪ VÀ ĐỘNG TỪ NGUYÊN THỂ

ENGLISH FILE Elementary

INSTITUTO NACIONAL 8 TH GRADE UNITS UNIT 6 COUNTABLE AND UNCOUNTABLE NOUNS

Kiểm tra định kỳ cuối học kỳ II Năm học Môn Tiếng Anh - Lớp 3 (Thời gian làm bài 40 phút) Họ và tên: Lớp:.

Elementary Podcast Support Pack Series 2 episode 9

Gia Sư Tài Năng Việt

Adventures. 1 Warm-up. 2 Conversation. Language box Adventures. a Talk about the pictures with a partner.

Part A Instructions and examples

ENGLISH FILE. 5 Grammar, Vocabulary, and Pronunciation B. 3 Underline the correct word(s). 1 Order the words to make sentences.

Grammar. Name: 1 Underline the correct words.

Hello. I m Q-rex. Target Language. Phone Number :

VnDoc - Tải tài liệu, văn bản pháp luật, biểu mẫu miễn phí

The indefinite articles 1. We use the article a / an when we are talking about something for the first time or not specific things.

Transcription:

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ( Đề thi gồm có 11 trang) KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC : 2010-2011 KHÓA NGÀY: 14 / 4 / 2011 MÔN THI : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề I. LISTENING ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 15 phút gồm 3 phần. Trong mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh( bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: There are 5 questions in this part. For each question there are four pictures and a short recording You will hear each recording twice Choose the correct picture and put a tick in the box below it. Example : What time is Tom going to the theatre? -Page 1 of 11-

Part 2: Questions 6 to 10 You will hear an announcement at a school fête. Write your answers in the numbered box below. 6. The money will be spent on A. school computers B. a new building C. the fete D. a new swimming pool 7. What starts at 2 o'clock? A. the fête B. the county gymnastics competition C. the gymnastics display D. fun and games -Page 2 of 11-

8. You can have a coffee break A. in classroom 7 B. in classroom 6 C. in the front playground D. in the sports hall 9. How many raffle tickets do you get for 1? A. 150 B. 30 C. 3 D. 50 10. You should buy your raffle tickets A. by 4.30 pm B. at 5pm C. when you enter the fete D. any time before 5 pm Part 3: Questions 11-15 Look at the notes. Some information is missing. You will hear a teacher talking to her class about a brave person, Amanda Morris. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. AMANDA MORRIS Became ill when she was (11). years old. She wasn't strong enough to work or (12)... She went to (13)... for an operation. She decided to try (14)...with dolphins as a new treatment. She is known as the (15)...girl'. II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (30 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16: Pick out the word which has different stress pattern from that of the rest. A. tornado B. cyclone C. forecast D. earthquake 17: The students will go on the camping trip next weekend. A. their names are highlighted B. that names are highlighted C. are highlighted D. whose names are highlighted 18: I m angry because you didn t tell me the truth. I don t like. A. to deceive B. being deceived C. having deceived. D. deceiving 19: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others A. sure B. sugar C. machine D. sing 20: The child is crying because his mother isn t here. A. If the child s mother was here, he would be crying. B. If the child s mother were here, he wouldn t have been crying. C. If the child s mother were here, he wouldn t be crying. D. If the child s mother weren t here, he wouldn t be crying. 21: As the fairy tale goes, the prince into a frog by an evil magician, and only a kiss from a beautiful princess could restore him to original state. A. turned B. was turning C. was turned D. had been turning. 22: "Were you expecting James and Paul to stay for dinner?" "No, but I a lot of food, so it didn't matter. A. had been preparing B. have prepared C. was preparing D. had prepared 23: Jim: " I've got a new job. I'm moving to New York" Jane: " " -Page 3 of 11-

Jim: " Me, too. Let's keep in touch." A. Yeah. I look forward to visiting New York. B. All right. That's a life. Grass is greener in the other side. C. Oh, that's great! But I'm going to miss you. D. What a pity. I'm busy tonight. Another time, perhaps. 24: "It was very kind of you to help me overcome the financial problem." ".What are friends for?" A. Of course you do B. I'm afraid I can't C. Never mind. D. What a pity 25: A of humor makes our life less stressful. A. feeling B. like C. spirit D. sense 26: "We'd better take a taxi to the station" "Yes. The train in fifteen minutes" A. leaves B. had left C. will have left D. has left 27: Train conductor: Excuse me. Would you mind putting out your cigarette? This is a no smoking compartment! Passenger: A. Sorry. I didn t mean to push in. I didn t realize there was a queue. B. Forget it. It s all right now. C. Is it? I didn t see the sign. I m terribly sorry. D. Oh, yes. A stop sign. I must have missed it. Sorry for that. 28: If we go on wasting water, there will be a of fresh water in a few decades. A. confinement B. missing C. shortage D. disappearance 29: Would you like some coffee?", Peter asked me. A. Peter asked me to give make him a cup of coffee. B. Peter asked do I like some coffee? C. Peter asked me if I liked coffee. D. Peter offered to give me some coffee. 30: The dish is made with ingredients in most supermarkets. A. available B. acceptable C. eatable D. visible 31: Mary wondered A. that Kevin and Ruth could be at the party. B. that if Kevin and Ruth would be at the party. C. whether Kevin and Ruth were at the party. D. whether Kevin and Ruth would be at the party. 32: This school is very famous in the city. It has teachers. A. qualifier B. qualified-well C. well-qualified D. good-qualifying 33: "I think married women should not go to work." " " A. Well, I see your point but it's too boring to be housewives all their lives. B. I believe women are more loyal than men. C. What nonsense! I don't agree. Women are better at running a home than men. D. In my opinion, men lose their temper more easily than women 34: "There was a power cut last night." " I know. I some paperwork when the light out. A. was doing/ went B. had been doing/ was going C. had done/ had gone D. did / went 35: Pick out the word which has different stress pattern from that of the rest. A. thunderstorm B. introduce C. celebrate D. temperature 36: Many people enjoy the pleasures and of living in a city centre. A. support B. convenience C. celebration D. conservation 37: "I've invited Sam to my party." "I doubt if he. He's studying for an exam. A. comes B. will come C. is coming D. has come -Page 4 of 11-

38: He has taken from a small village in the south of Vietnam to compose this song. A. inspiration B. absorption C. use D. measures 39: Who will the children when you are away from town? A. take care B. fill out C. look after D. get over 40: It was very kind you to send me a bunch of beautiful flowers on my birthday. A. to B. of C. from D. for 41: Well, you ve never been to Saudi Arabia,...? A. are you B. have you C. haven t you D. don't you 42: The of Vietnamese women prefer to wear ao dai A. majorly B. majoring C. major D. majority 43: he wasn t feeling very well, David was determined to take part in the inter-university athletics competition. A. Even though B. While C. because D. therefore 44: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others A. threatened B. looked C. called D. arrived 45: It s cold outside. your coat. A. Put on B. go on C. take off D. give up III. READING : (35 points) PART I : Questions 46-50 Look at the sign in each question. Someone asks you what it means. Write your answers in the numbered box.. (Các bảng hiệu dưới đây có nghĩa gì? Chọn câu giải thích đúng A, B, C hay D tương ứng bên cột phải. câu số 0 đã được làm mẫu ). Example: Question 0 - A 0 A. You may not leave your rubbish here at all. B. Picnic food is provided here. C. Picnics are not allowed in this area. D. You should clear away your rubbish 46 47. -Page 5 of 11-

48. 49. 50. PART 2: Questions 51-55 The people below all want to hire somewhere for a party or event. On the opposite page there are descriptions of eight places to hire. Decide which place (letters A-H) would be the most suitable for the following people (numbers 51-55). Write your answers in the numbered box below. 51. Jessica is arranging her boss's retirement party. She is looking for somewhere in the town centre that can provide a traditional evening meal for around 100 guests. 52. Amelia is organising her 181h birthday party for 80 friends. She loves to dance and sing along to her favourite tunes. She wants to offer drinks and snacks rather than a sit-down meal. -Page 6 of 11-

53. James and Amanda need somewhere to hold their wedding party. They want to be able to take photos outdoors. Most of their 100 guests are coming by car and some will need overnight accommodation. 54. Jens wants to thank his staff of six by taking them out for a day in the countryside. He wants somewhere where they can do lots of fun activities and have a meal. 55. Sophie is organising her company's annual two-day conference. Several meeting rooms are required, one of which must be able to hold 200 people. They will all need to stay one night. A. Rumbola Rumbola is available for private bookings of up to 100 people. Hire one of our D)s, who will keep you and your guests moving to the music all night. If you know the words, he'll encourage you to join in! We have no restaurant, but light refreshments are available. B. The Darlington Centre This modern building, situated in the countryside, is perfect for all business events. We have rooms of varying sizes - the Haversham is the largest with space for 300 people. Included in the price we meals, overnight accommodation and tea/coffee. C. Amazon Cafe Situated in the town centre, this restaurant is an exciting place to celebrate a birthday or other special event. The restaurant is decorated to look and sound like a rainforest. Busy and fun, it is popular with young people who like Brazilian food and listening to loud music. D. Sunbury Park This country house has space for 200 people at events such as weddings and formal dinners. In our beautiful park, we offer a variety of exciting sports and teambuilding games. As overnight accommodation is not provided, your event will be free from the interruptions often found in a hotel. We have a large car park E. Narborough Manor In the historic town centre, this beautiful hotel is the perfect setting for a wedding or birthday party. We can organise entertainment such as magic shows or live music. Lovely paintings and fireplaces make the perfect background for photos. Our dining room seats up to 80. F. Hudsons This beautiful building dates from 1750 and is the last of its kind in this central location all around it are shops and businesses. During the day it serves light lunches but in the evening it turns into an old-fashioned, formal restaurant, which can be hired for parties of up to 200 people. G. Hillcourt House This family-run hotel is famous for its beautiful gardens. It can host private or small business events. The dining room holds 150 and meeting rooms hold 10-20. The hotel is in the countryside but close to two motorways and has plenty of parking spaces. H. Tiger Tom At weekends, this stylish town-centre restaurant is full of famous faces, but on certain weekdays it can be hired for birthday parties or business events. The menus are modern and it is possible to play your own choice of music while you have your meal. -Page 7 of 11-

PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. I'm sure I'm not the only person my age (15) who hates going to the dentist. Channel 4's late-night documentary Open wide last Tuesday was excellent for people like me. However, none of my school friends watched it because they didn't know it was on. Why can't television companies let us know about such important programmes in advance? This programme was important because it showed how methods for helping people with toothache have developed over the centuries. If you think visiting the dentist today is an uncomfortable experience, just be grateful you didn't live 200 years ago! Then, the programme told us, the only cure for toothache was removing the tooth. There weren't any dentists, so the person who cut your hair also pulled out your bad teeth, and there was nothing to stop you feeling the pain. The programme has also completely changed my attitude to looking after my teeth. My parents were always saying to me things like, 'Don't eat too many sweets,' and, 'Brush your teeth after meals,' but I never paid much attention. Now I've seen what damage sugar can do, especially if I don't use a toothbrush regularly, I'm going to change my habits. Many people would benefit from a repeat of this programme. Sophie Ashley, Oxford 56. Why has Sophie written this letter? A. to complain about the time a television programme was shown B. to ask for more television programmes designed for school children C. to advise people to watch a particular television programme D. to persuade a television company to show a programme again 57. What can a reader find out from this letter? A. how to encourage young people to take care of their teeth B. where to get information about future television programmes C. what kinds of subjects young people enjoy studying at school D. which television channel shows the most interesting programmes 58. What did Open wide say about toothache? A. In the past, nobody could make it stop. B. Dentists used to help people who had it. C. Hairdressers have it more than other people. D. Ways of curing it have changed. 59. What does Sophie think about her parents now? A. They don't know as much as her about teeth. B. Their advice is worth listening to. C. They eat things which are had for them. D. They don't clean their teeth often enough. 60. Which of these gives information about the programme Sophie watched? -Page 8 of 11-

PART 4: Questions 61-70: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. THE RECIPE FOR GOOD COMMUNICATION How many people do you communicate with in a day? Probably a lot more (61)..you did ten years ago. With it few pieces of equipment, we can 'talk' to people in more and more ways, not (62)...face-to-face and on the phone, but also via the Internet. It is very important, therefore, (63).everyone to try and improve their communication skills. Despite all the technological advances of (64).years, the art of good conversation is still at the heart of successful communication. (65)..it's a good idea to remember the four golden rules of good communication. Firstly, be as clear as you can. Misunderstandings arise if we don't say exactly (66).we mean. Secondly, we have to work (67)...at listening. Pay attention to what the other person is saying. Thirdly, ask (68).. people what they think, don't only tell them what you think. And finally show respect for other people, give them time to say what they want, and (69).interest in what they say. If you (70).these rules, you will be a good communicator. 61. A. like B. than C. as D. that 62. A. vet B. even C. just D still 63. A. for B. if C. by D. from 64. A. close B. last C. late D. recent 65. A. There B. So C. Such D. Or 66. A. when B. what C. which D. whom 67. A. hard B. much C. great D. very 68. A. every B. other C. each D. another 69. A. get B. put C. be D. show 70. A. act B. move C. follow D. go IV / WRITING : (20 points) PART 1: (6 pts) For questions 71-76, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Here is an example: How long is it since they bought the house? When did they buy the house? -Page 9 of 11-

71. My neighbor is confused by modern technology. Modern technology... 72. Whose is this mobile phone? Who does...? 73. Email makes contacting people a lot easier. With email, it is... 74. If you don't give up coffee, you'll never sleep well. You'll never sleep well unless... 75. Shaun is too weak to open the classroom door. Shaun isn't... 76. My sister's favourite film star is Tom Cruise. Tom Cruise is the film star... PART 2: ERROR IDENTIFICATION Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting: (Có một lỗi sai ở A,B,C hoặc D, hãy chọn phần cần sửa) 77. People use the Internet for many purposes: education, communicative, entertainment and A B C commerce. D 78: After Mrs. Wang had returned to her house from work, she was cooking dinner. A B C D 79: According to me, teenagers nowadays are too lazy to read books. They prefer playing games, A B C D instead. 80. Although our parents are very busy with their business, but they try to spend as much time with A B C D their children as possible. PART 3: You are on holiday at a place you've never been to before. Write a letter to an English-speaking friend. Tell him/her about 3 things you liked and describe one thing you didn't like. Finish the letter on your answer sheet, using at least 100 words. -Page 10 of 11-

Dear..., I have been here for a week and I have lots of news to tell you.... --- The End --- THE END -Page 11 of 11-