Chapter One Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which best describes a basic television system? a. the facilities, equipment, and the people who operate the satellite link p. 4> b. the equipment and the people who operate it to produce a specific television program c. the people who operate a television station d. the equipment that puts program material on the air automatically e. the computer that controls the editing VTRs 2. What are the three major parts of the camera? a. lens, intercom, and console b. camera control unit, viewfinder, and cable c. lens, viewfinder, and power supply p. 8> d. lens, imaging device, and viewfinder e. sync generator, lens, and power supply 3. What is the imaging, or pickup, device? a. a type of computer graphic b. a storyboard visualization device c. a very sensitive microphone d. a computer paint box that converts videotape images into pixels p. 8> e. a camera component that converts optical images into electrical signals 4. What are television lighting instruments that produce directional light called? a. studio lights b. film lights p. 10> c. spotlights d. floodlights
e. fluorescent lights 5. What is the basic function of a microphone? a. to change actual sounds into loudspeaker sounds b. to mix various sounds together c. to amplify actual sounds p. 11> d. to convert actual sound waves into electric energy e. to control the volume of sounds entering the audio mixer 6. Which of the statements most accurately describes the functions of the audio console? a. to select, amplify, mix, and control the volume of incoming microphone signals only b. to amply, mix, and control the volume, but not select the incoming sound signals, of mics c. to synthesize various sounds and sound combinations p. 12> d. to select, amplify, mix, and control the volume of all incoming sound signals e. to select and mix all incoming audio and video signals 7. What is the principal function of a switcher? a. to regulate the studio lights b. to assign power to a specific studio c. to assign videotape recorders in the editing bay p. 14> d. to enable instantaneous editing e. to select various intercom channels 8. What do the studio monitors normally show? p. 19> a. the video (line-out) feed from the program switcher b. the pictures of cameras about to go on the air c. exclusively the remote feeds d. exclusively the VTR feeds e. the competing network feed 9. Why do we need sound-deadening material on the walls and ceiling of a
television studio? p. 19> a. to prevent sound reverberations b. to control the volume of especially loud rock bands c. to prevent sounds from entering the studio d. to reinforce low-frequency sounds e. to reinforce high-frequency sounds 10. What part of a television station is responsible for program retrieval, input, and storage? a. production control room b. studio control room p. 23> c. master control room d. audio control room e. postproduction editing suite Chapter Two Multiple-Choice Questions 1. How is the basic CRT video image created electronically? a. a light beam scans the dots on the television screen p. 28> b. an electron beam scans the dots on the inside of the television screen c. the light beam is scanning every fourth line d. the image is projected onto the inside of the screen e. each basic color of the image is projected onto the screen as colored light beams 2. What is the correct order of digitization steps? a. sampling, quantizing, antialiasing, and coding b. quantizing, sampling, antialiasing, and coding c. coding, quantizing, sampling, and antialiasing p. 30> d. antialiasing, sampling, quantizing, and coding e. coding, antialiasing, sampling, and quantizing 3. What is the major characteristic of an analog signal?
a. it must be amplified before it can be transported b. it must be coded p. 30> c. it fluctuates exactly like the original signal d. it fluctuates opposite the original signal e. it consists of 0 s and 1 s 4. What is the major characteristic of a digital signal? p. 30> a. it consists of on/off pulses represented by 0 s and 1 s b. it fluctuates opposite the original signal c. it is interlaced d. it is progressive e. it is lossless 5. Which system scans all lines in successive order? a. interlaced b. digital c. compressive d. lossy p. 37> e. progressive 6. Which traditional and wide-screen HDTV aspect ratio pairs are the correct match? a. 4 3 and 1.78:1, 16 9 and 1.89:1 p. 34> b. 4 3 and 1.33:1, 16 9 and 1.78:1 c. 4 3 and 1.16:1, 16 9 and 1.90:1 d. 4 3 and 4.3:1, 16 9 and 16.9:1 e. 4 3 and 3.4:1, 16 9 and 9.16:1
CHAPTER 3 THE TELEVISION CAMERA Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What are the primary additive colors in television? a. red, blue, and yellow p. 44> b. red, green, and blue c. red, green, and yellow d. magenta, yellow, and cyan e. red, cyan, and magenta 2. What imaging elements does the prism block contain? a. chrominance channel p. 44> b. beam-splitting prisms, filters, and CCDs c. color plate d. luminance channels e. luminance channel and CCDs 3. Which statement best describes the video imaging process? a. the image is captured on film and developed by chemicals b. the light is converted to sound waves for recording c. the light waves are carried directly to the receiver p. 43> d. the light is converted into electric energy e. the image is divided into subtractive colors 4. What is the most common imaging device in television cameras? p. 44> a. CCD b. CPU c. RCU d. LED e. CCU 5. What are the four basic elements of a camera chain? a. camera, switcher, preview monitors, and CCU
b. camera head, CCU, camera pedestal, and lens p. 44> c. camera head, sync generator, power supply, and CCU d. power supply, pickup device, viewfinder, and camera head e. camera head, camera cable, VTR, and CCU 6. As video operator, or shader, which of the following CCU operations will you not perform? a. adjusting the white level b. adjusting for the trueness of color p. 45> c. adjusting the level of the sync signal d. adjusting for the contrast range of the image e. adjusting the black level 7. What does the gain control on an ENG/EFP camera compensate for electronically? p. 53> a. very low light levels b. very high light levels c. dim colors d. too few pixels e. intercom levels 8. What pair of connectors and be used for video? p. 58> a. BNC and S-video b. XLR and RCA phono c. XLR and mini d. BNC and mini e. phone plug and RCA phono plug 9. What are two functions of a CCU? a. to control the resolution and brightness p.000> b. to control the brightness and hue c. to control the color and resolution d. to control the saturation and focus e. to control the focus and number of pixels
10. What does picture resolution mean? a. the picture sequence resolves the story b. the electron beam scans every line from top to bottom p. 50> c. the measurement of picture detail d. the electron beam scans every line from bottom to top e. the measurement of the scanning cycle C CHAPTER 4 LENSES Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which lens ratio allows you the greatest zoom range from wide-angle to close-up? a. 8:1 p. 68> b. 60:1 c. 1:10 d. 20:1 e. 1:8 2. Which is the correct relationship between zooming and the resulting focal length? a. zooming in decreases the focal length p. 71> b. zooming in increases the focal length c. zooming out puts the lens in a narrow-angle position d. zooming out increases the focal length e. zooming does not affect the focal length of the lens 3. What is the correct method of calibrating (presetting) the zoom lens to keep it in focus throughout the zoom? a. zooming the lens all the way out and focusing on the background b. zooming the lens all the way out and focusing on the principal subject c. zooming the lens to the normal focal length and focusing on the principal subject
d. zooming the lens all the way in and focusing on the test chart p. 73> e. zooming the lens all the way in and focusing on the principal subject 4. What must you do to permit less light to pass through the lens? p. 74> a. change to a higher ƒ-stop number b. change to a lower ƒ-stop number c. open the iris d. increase the focal length of the lens e. increase the aperture 5. What three factors determine the depth of field of a field of view? a. zoom range, focal length, and subject-to-camera distance b. iris, ƒ-stop, and light level c. subject-to-camera distance, aperture, and zoom ratio p. 75> d. aperture, subject-to-camera distance, and focal length e. subject-to-camera distance, contrast range, and iris 6. How can you recognize that an extreme zoom-in was done digitally rather than optically? a. the space between objects is compressed b. the space between objects is expanded c. the picture looks sharper p.000> d. the picture looks mosaic-like e. the picture has changed its aspect ratio 7. If you use a wide-angle lens to shoot down to the street from a tall building, how would the people on the street appear in the image? a. very close to the camera b. the same distance from the camera as they would appear to the naked eye c. larger than they really are p. 81> d. farther away from the camera than they would appear to the naked eye
e. not visible in the image 8. If you were directing a commercial and wanted to create a comedic effect of grossly distorted facial features on talent, which lens should you use? a. slow lens b. special-effects lens p. 81> c. wide-angle lens d. fast lens e. long lens 9. If you are a director trying to decide whether to use a zoom or a dolly to create the visual effect of a person going toward a restaurant table, which of the following statements would give you the correct and proper guidance in making your decision? p. 82> a. a zoom brings the scene to the viewer; a dolly takes the viewer into the scene b. a dolly brings the scene to the viewer; a zoom takes the viewer into the scene c. either (a) or (b) is correct, because there is no perceptible difference between the two d. it depends on the type of zoom lens e. it depends on the speed (maximum aperture) of the zoom lens 10. To intensify the shot of congested, slow-moving traffic on a freeway during rush hour, which lens or zoom lens position would you choose when shooting toward the oncoming traffic? a. wide-angle lens position (zoomed all the way out) b. normal lens position (zoomed halfway in) p. 84> c. narrow-angle lens position (zoomed all the way in) d. narrow-angle lens position (zoomed all the way out) e. fish-eye lens
CHAPTER 5 CAMERA MOUNTING EQUIPMENT Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which camera mount is the most practical for a permanently installed teleconference system? p.000> a. robotic mount b. studio pedestal c. jib arm d. crab dolly e. handheld camcorder 2. Which mounting method is best suited for the frequent use of a canting shot? a. studio pedestal p.000> b. shoulder-mounted c. tripod d. high-hat e. jib arm 3. Which of the following best describes studio pedestals? a. relatively light and easy to move about b. an ideal camera mount for remote operations p. 92> c. capable of raising and lowering the camera while on the air d. prone to air leaks of the pneumatic system e. too heavy to be moved by a single camera operator 4. In which production situation would you be most likely to use a studio pedestal? p. 92> a. studio newscast b. football game c. outdoor parade d. high-school track meet
e. classroom lecture 5. What is the most appropriate use of a cam head? a. to provide smooth pan-and-tilt capabilities for ENG/EFP cameras b. to provide smooth pan-and-tilt capabilities for camcorders p. 96> c. to provide smooth pan-and-tilt capabilities for heavy studio cameras and teleprompter d. to enable heavy cameras to be elevated and lowered while on the air e. to activate teleprompters by remote-controlled cameras 6. What should you do to the mounting head when leaving the camera unattended? a. tighten the pan-and-tilt drag p. 95> b. tighten the pan-and-tilt lock c. loosen the pan-and-tilt drag d. loosen the pan-and-tilt lock e. undo the wedge mount 7. Which function does the wedge mount serve? a. acts as a wedge mount dolly b. secures the dolly base to the tripod p. 96> c. facilitates the mounting and balancing of a camera on the cam head d. facilitates the mounting of a studio monitor e. secures the tripod to the cam head 8. Which of these camera movements cannot be done with a regular studio pedestal? a. arc b. pan c. truck p. 97> d. tongue e. dolly 9. Which camera mount would be most appropriate to get very low angle shots (looking up from a low camera position) of talent standing on a studio floor?
p. 102> a. jib arm b. studio pedestal c. robotic pedestal d. tripod e. tripod dolly
CHAPTER 6 CAMERA OPERATION AND PICTURE COMPOSITION Multiple-Choice Questions 1. How should you preset your body when panning with a small camcorder? a. point your knees in the direction of the start of the pan p. 111> b. point your knees in the direction of the desired end of the pan c. point your elbows in the direction of the start of the pan d. point your elbows in the direction of the desired end of the pan e. keep your eyes on the starting point of the pan 2. When should you calibrate (preset) a zoom lens? a. only at the beginning of the shoot b. only when the object/subject changes position c. every time you have zoomed in and out p. 113> d. every time either the camera or the object/subject changes position e. only when the director tells you to do so 3. Which is the most appropriate way to frame an ECU of a person looking straight into the camera? a. leave appropriate headroom, with the lower frame cutting just below the chin b. leave appropriate noseroom, with the frame cutting just below the chin c. Have the upper frame cut just at the top of the head, with the lower frame cutting just below the chin d. have the upper and lower frame cut at the natural cutoff points p. 120> e. have the upper frame cut at the middle of the forehead and the lower frame just below the shoulders 4. Which is the best way to check focus between shots when your camera is not on the air? a. leaving the focus control where it was last set b. focusing on the part of the subject s body that is farthest from the camera
c. putting the lens in the wide-angle position before checking focus p. 115> d. racking the lens through focus a few times while pointed at the target object e. asking the director if your image is in focus on the preview monitor 5. After moving your camera into a new position during a studio production, what do you need to do? a. lock the pedestal b. coil the camera cable p. 115> c. recalibrate the zoom lens d. tell the director of your move e. recheck the intercom system 6. What is psychological closure? a. talent being stonefaced p. 122> b. mentally filling in information that is actually absent from a pattern c. mentally filling in off-screen positions d. mentally filling in what a character thinks but does not say e. a play coming to a neat conclusion 7. Which of the following most correctly describes the duty of a camera operator in relation to the required shots? p. 115> a. remembering and executing the type and sequence of shots as rehearsed b. asking the floor director which shot comes next c. not worrying about what comes next the director will tell you d. writing up your own shot sheet before the rehearsal e. selecting and composing shots depending on how the show feels to you 8. What is the most appropriate definition of field of view? a. a clear and unobstructed vista in normal focus b. the view you get when checking camera positions in the field c. the strict observance of compositional rules
p. 118> d. how close or far away the object appears relative to the camera e. the number of people or objects that appear in a shot 9. What should you do to properly frame a shot? p. 122> a. leave a little more than normal headroom to compensate for the picture area loss during transmission b. place the eyes in the lower third of the frame c. leave as little screen space as possible in front of a moving object d. never tilt the horizon line e. concentrate on the target object and ignore the background 10. In framing a profile shot, what is a major consideration? a. x-axis movement p. 122> b. noseroom c. adequate leadroom d. headroom e. psychological closure CHAPTER 7 LIGHTING Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which lighting instruments are best suited for establishing even baselight? a. ellipsoidal spot b. Fresnel spot c. focused open-face instruments 000> d. fluorescent banks e. HMI Fresnel spot 2. How can you best measure reflected light? 000> a. by pointing the light meter close to the lighted object b. by pointing the light meter into the lights that illuminate the object c. by standing next to the lighted object and pointing the light meter toward the camera lens
d. by standing next to the camera and pointing the light meter toward the lighted object e. by watching for overly bright spots in the viewfinder 3. Which lighting instrument cannot be focused? a. ellipsoidal spot 000> b. fluorescent bank c. Omni light d. cookie projector e. small ENG/EFP Fresnel 4. Which lux figure approximates most closely 100 foot-candles? a. 0.1 b. 10 c. 100 p. 155> d. 1,000 e. 3,200 5. As a lighting director, you may wonder whether you always need to use a light meter. Which statement is most accurate regarding the use of a light meter? a. if you are good at lighting, you will never need a light meter b. good lighting is always guaranteed when you use a light meter p. 155> c. light meter readings are valuable as a guide to make lighting more efficient d. light meters make video monitors unnecessary in lighting e. light meters should be used only by the video operator 6. How would you best measure baselight on a set? a. by reading reflected light with the meter held close to each subject b. by reading incident light with only one light on at a time c. by reading reflected light with the meter held close to the background p. 156> d. by reading incident light with all the lights used turned on full e. by reading the dimmer settings on the dimmer panel 7. The video operator tells you that you do not have enough baselight for the optimal performance of the studio cameras. How can you most efficiently
increase the baselight levels? a. by turning on two or three ellipsoidal spots b. by redirecting some of the spotlights c. by focusing the beams of the Fresnel spot p. 157> d. by turning on additional floodlights e. by inserting light-blue gels 8. Which lighting instrument will give you the sharpest beam? a. Fresnel spot p. 134> b. ellipsoidal spot c. scoop d. internal reflector spot e. cyc light 9. Which of the lighting instruments has no lens? a. Fresnel spot b. ellipsoidal spot p. 135> c. scoop d. follow spot e. HMI Fresnel spot 10. What is incident light? p. 156> a. light that strikes the object directly from its source b. light that spills over c. an especially sharp light beam d. the overall baselight level on a set e. light that is bounced off the illuminated object
CHAPTER 8 TECHNIQUES OF TELEVISION LIGHTING Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which combination matches the basic triangle lighting? a. key, back, background b. kicker, back, key c. fill, kicker, side d. background, side, key p. 167> e. key, back, fill 2. What is the basic function of a key light? a. to soften shadows created by the back light b. to provide a strong light opposite the back light p. 165> c. to reveal the basic shape of the subject d. to add sparkle to the subject s eyes e. to silhouette the subject 3. What is the best way to achieve optimal back lighting? a. to have the active furniture (actually used by talent) as close to the scenic background as possible p. 166> b. to have the active furniture at least 6 feet away from the scenic background c. to have talent work as close as possible to the background scenery d. to have the back lights shine straight down onto the talent e. to lower the back lights as much as possible 4. Which is the most accurate statement relating to fill light and falloff? p. 166> a. the more fill you use, the slower falloff becomes b. the less fill you use, the slower falloff becomes c. fill has no bearing on falloff d. the effect of fill on falloff is insignificant for most lighting purposes e. two back lights are necessary to slow falloff
5. Which statement best describes high-key lighting? a. the key light hangs above eye level p. 168> b. the background is light and the general illumination is bright c. the key light burns at a high intensity c. the key light burns at a high color temperature d. all key lights are placed above the fill lights 6. If you were lighting a moonlight scene for a perfume commercial, which lighting technique would you most likely use? p. 168> a. low-key b. blue-key c. external-key d. high-key e. internal-key 7. Which of these statements is the most appropriate for lighting a chromakey background? p. 173> a. the lighting must be as even as possible b. the light must be kept off the background as much as possible c. the key light must have a yellow gel to counteract the blue d. only small, precisely defined areas of the background must be illuminated e. the background lighting must be at least six times the intensity of the foreground lighting 8. What is the best light for shooting outdoors during the day? a. sunlight at sunrise b. reflected sunlight at noon c. studio lighting instruments set up in the shade p. 182> d. overcast day or shadow area e. sunlight through moving clouds 9. When mixing fluorescent and incandescent indoor lights, what needs your special attention? a. that all instruments have a diffused light beam
p. 184> b. that their color temperatures match c. that especially the fluorescent instruments are far enough away from combustible materials d. that they burn at the same intensity e. that they all have a focused beam 10. In lighting the news set, the LD has been used to a 2:1:1 (key:back:fill) lighting ratio. When you check the monitor with the new anchor on the news set (who has curly black hair), it shows her blending in too much with the dark background of the set. Also, her close-up lacks sparkle. What would you do to improve the lighting? a. decrease the key light intensity b. move the key light farther from the talent p. 177> c. increase the back light intensity d. increase the fill light intensity e. use a camera light 11. If your only lighting instruments burn with an indoor color temperature norm and you need to match the outdoor light coming through the window, what must you do? a. acquire the appropriate daylight instrument p. 153> b. insert light-blue gels in the instruments c. insert orange gels in the instruments d. dim the instruments as much as possible e. put diffusers in front of the instruments
CHAPTER 9 AUDIO: SOUND PICKUP Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which type of microphone is the most rugged? a. ribbon p. 194> b. dynamic c. condenser d. cardioid e. shotgun 2. Which type of mic is best suited for general ENG applications? p. 194> a. dynamic b. condenser c. hypercardioid d. ribbon e. unidirectional condenser 3. In the context of microphone characteristics, what does cardioid refer to? a. the heart condition of the audio engineer b. a specific omnidirectional polar pattern p. 195> c. a specific unidirectional polar pattern d. a specific sound-generating device e. a specific microphone application 4. In which situation would you not want to use lavaliere mics? a. newscast b. classroom lecture c. seated interview with host and guest d. performer reading story on children s program p. 197> e. reporter on location interviewing eyewitnesses 5. Which microphone would be most appropriate for a company president delivering her weekly address behind her office desk? a. fishpole
b. stand mic c. hanging mic p. 197> d. lavaliere mic e. hand mic 6. Which is the best type of boom microphone? a. omnidirectional dynamic b. omnidirectional ribbon c. lavaliere p. 202> e. shotgun d. omnidirectional condenser 7. Which of the following is a major advantage of a fishpole boom mic? a. it is totally immune to handling noises b. you can hold it a long time without getting tired p. 202> c. you can get a relatively close sound pickup while keeping the mic out of the shot d. you are automatically outside a wide-angle shot e. you can stand next to the camera 8. What would most likely interfere with proper reception from a wireless mic? a. frequency of talent s voice b. time of day p. 207> c. other wireless transmissions on adjacent frequencies d. the wired production intercom e. number of mics used 9. Which statement is most appropriate to describe the use of a parabolic reflector microphone? a. provides excellent mic presence b. is best used for dramatic scenes in which the talent speaks softly c. is best used for panel discussions p. 214> d. can be used to pick up the audience sounds at a sporting event over
relatively great distances e. is especially good for the pickup of orchestras 10. What is the most common professional (balanced) audio cable connector? a. BNC b. phone plug c. SFX p. 220> d. XLR e. RCA phono
CHAPTER 10 AUDIO: SOUND CONTROL Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What is the most effective way to balance the volume of voices during a lively panel show? a. presetting volume before the show and not changing it b. killing a mic while the person is not talking and then resetting the level p. 228> c. riding gain on individual mics as each person speaks d. asking the director when to change volume levels e. having the floor manager signal talent when to speak louder or softer 2. What is the optimal VU range when riding gain? p. 228> a. 5 and 0 VU b. 20 and 7 VU c. 0 and +3 VU d. 20 and +3 VU e. 0 and 33 percent 3. During a game show, the floor director tells you that the off-camera announcer had temporarily unplugged her mic but then plugged it in again. What part of the console will you use to test the mic again while the other mics are still switched on and active? a. line-out monitor b. interruptible foldback system p. 230> c. cue channel d. downstream keyer e. equalizer 4. What is the most convenient way of arranging the various audio sources in a specific order at the audio console? p. 230> d. patching a. arranging the studio audio cables in a particular way b. labeling the studio wall jacks c. using audio mixers before routing the cables to the audio board
e. physically arranging the sound sources in a particular order. 5. When recording sound on a VTR in the field, what is the major problem with using AGC? a. it always distorts sound b. it does not compensate for the distance of the talent from the microphone c. you can t control peak volume in postproduction p. 239> d. it boosts equally wanted and unwanted distant sounds e. it is appropriate only for studio recording systems 6. What does ADR stand for? a. alternate digital recording b. analog disk recording p. 248> c. automatic dialog replacement d. automatic disc recording e. audio digital replacement 7. What is the difference between mic-level and line-level inputs? a. there is no difference b. you can choose either to plug in the mic p. 237> c. mic-level inputs are for low-level sources, and line-level inputs are for high-level sources d. mic-level inputs are for high-level sources, and line-level inputs are for low-level sources e. you can choose either for high-level inputs 8. If you are recording a singer who is performing to the prerecorded sound of an orchestra, what type of feed would you most likely use? p. 240> a. mix-minus b. mix-plus c. foldback d. ADR e. interruptible foldback
9. In the context of sound aesthetics, perspective refers to which statement? a. close-ups go with faraway sounds, long shots with close sounds p. 245> b. close-ups go with close sounds, long shots with faraway sounds c. close-ups have more ambience than long shots d. long shots have more reverberation than close-ups e. close-ups have more reverberation than long shots 10. In the context of sound aesthetics, which defines most accurately the figure/ground effect? p.000> a. the most important sounds are louder and more distinct than all others b. the sounds of the camera-near person compared with the camera-far person in an over-the-shoulder shot. c. sounds that are made by people standing in front of a stage background d. sounds that describe a particular figure (round, thin, big) against a neutral background e. sounds that describe a particular background CHAPTER 11 SWITCHING, OR INSTANTANEOUS EDITING Multiple-Choice Questions 1. As you use a switcher to fade from black to camera 1, which switching mode do you assign the M/E buses? a. program mode b. preview mode p. 253> c. mix mode d. effects mode e. preset mode 2. Which of the following transitions requires the buses to be delegated to the wipe mode?
a. dissolve p. 260> b. horizontal split screen c. superimposition d. fade e. cut 3. What best describes a multifunction bus? a. it assigns various wipe patterns b. it can select various background colors c. it can select various chroma-key effects p. 254> d. it can function as a mix or an effects bus e. it creates automatic supers if preprogrammed correctly 4. What switcher feature enables switcher manufacturers to keep the rows of buttons to a sensible minimum without curtailing the switcher s specialeffects capacity? a. clip controls b. flip-flop controls p. 254> c. delegation controls d. color controls e. wipe controls 5. Assuming that a switcher is in mix mode, how do you create a super? p. 259> a. punch up a specific video source on bus A and another on bus B, then move the fader bar halfway between the limit of its travel b. move the fader bar halfway between the mix buses, then punch up video sources on bus A and then on the key bus c. move the fader bar to the other end of travel d. punch up sources on bus A and bus B and adjust the clipper control e. push the super button on the switcher s special-effects bus 6. If you are setting up a key and you notice that the letters of the title you are using are tearing (breaking up), what switcher control would you use to correct the image of the title so it is clear and sharp? a. joy stick
p. 260> b. clip or key level control c. special-effects fader controls d. delegation controls e. chroma-key control 7. If you want to change the color produced by a color background generator in a switcher, which control would you use? p. 261> a. hue control b. luminance control c. clip control d. saturation control e. delegation controls 8. You already have up a name key identifying the guest. The director wants still another key identifying the name of the program. Which controls would allow you to achieve such a double key effect? p. 260> a. the downstream keyer b. the auto transition c. the chroma-keyer d. the matte key e. the external key 9. The novice producer is worried that she couldn t use the switcher for a live show, because the chief engineer told her that it is primarily a postproduction switcher. What is necessary to make this postproduction switcher function as a production switcher? a. repatching of inputs b. delegation controls c. adding a mix bus p. 262> d. nothing the switcher can fulfill both functions e. you need a digital switcher 10. If you were to visit a television station, where would you most likely find an audio-follow-video switcher? a. VTR room p. 266> b. master control room
c. audio control room d. EFP truck e. CCU section
CHAPTER 12 VIDEO-RECORDING AND STORAGE SYSTEMS Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which statement best describes a composite video system? a. it transports and records the Y and C signals separately b. it transports and records the RGB signals separately p. 271> c. it transports and records the Y and C signals together d. it transports the Y and C signals separately but records them as a combined signal e. it transports the Y/color difference signals separately but records them together 2. What is the main characteristic of a nonlinear recording system? a. the information is digitally recorded on a DVCPRO cassette b. the information is recorded in analog form on digital videotape c. the information is recorded in analog form on an optical disc d. the information is digitally recorded on a DVCAM cassette p. 271> e. the information is digitally recorded on hard drive or flash memory 3. What electronic system would you recommend for extensive postproduction and complex effects? p. 272> a. Y/color difference or RGB component b. Y/color difference or RGB composite c. Y/C component d. Y/C composite e. NTSC composite 4. If you are the videotape operator for an interview program and the guest gives you a tape with widely dispersed shots that are to be shown during the show, what recording feature will guide you quickly to the opening frame of the upcoming shot? a. pause button p. 276> b. SMPTE time code c. tracking control
d. jogging control e. rewind control 5. What is the major systems difference between a VHS and an S-VHS recorder? a. VHS, NTSC component; S-VHS, RGB component p. 271> b. VHS, NTSC composite; S-VHS, Y/C component c. VHS, Y/C composite; S-VHS, NTSC component d. VHS, RGB component; S-VHS, Y/C component e. VHS, NTSC component; S-VHS, RGB composite 6. Which tape cassette format is used in a DVCPRO or DVCAM camcorder? a. 1/2-inch b. 3/4-inch c. 8mm p. 280> d. 1/4-inch e. 8.5mm 7. How does the ESS system store its images? a. as individual analog frames b. as individual analog fields p. 282> c. as individual digital frames d. as individual digital fields e. as composite fields 8. Which two items are essential to a useful video leader? a. the first two frames of the program video p. 289> b. color bars and 0 VU test tone c. color bars and the recording time d. slate and the first few frames of the program e. VU test tone and show director 9. Which compression systems does MPEG-2 use? a. intraframe, lossy
p. 272> b. interframe, lossy c. interframe, lossless d. intraframe, lossless e. intraframe streaming 10. What recording medium is suitable for analog recording? p. 278> a. videotape b. hard drive c. flash memory d. DVD e. CD-ROM
CHAPTER 13 POSTPRODUCTION EDITING Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What is a main advantage of a nonlinear editing system? a. editing can be done with the switcher b. it is much faster than linear editing systems c. the analog source tapes can be transferred to the computer without digitizing p. 297> d. you can call up instantly any single frame through random access and display it next to another one e. you can run and display several videotapes simultaneously 2. What is the most accurate way to match video to an existing audio track? a. assemble edit b. mark edit-in and edit-out points while listening to the audio track p. 303> c. use time code d. use the pulse count system e. apply the PAL system 3. Which of the following is an advantage of assemble editing over insert editing? a. it does not change the control track on the source tape p. 304> b. it does not require the prior laying of a control track on the edit master tape c. it allows video track only editing d. it costs less e. it stabilizes the edits 4. The pulse-count system might be more advantageous than the time code system for which editing assignment? a. football game highlights p. 301> b. ENG footage of an accident
c. production of corporate instructional shows d. music videos e. documentary production 5. Why must you use the insert edit mode when adding video to an existing audio track in linear editing? a. it is faster and more accurate b. the assemble mode is less accurate c. the assemble mode needs time code d. the insert mode is more stable than the assemble mode p. 304> e. you can edit the video and audio tracks independently 6. What steps are necessary to capture analog source tapes on a computer hard drive? p. 308> a. digitize and import the usable source tape segments b. digitize the tapes onto digital VTR cassettes c. copy the tapes onto the digital edit master tape d. input the analog tapes onto the hard drive e. use a FireWire connection from the analog VTR to the computer hard drive 7. Why is it helpful to indicate motion vectors on a VTR log? a. to know which way to search for a scene on the tape b. to identify unusable shots p. 312> c. to find sequences quickly in which the object moves in a specific direction d. to convert the storyboard into a VTR log e. to avoid the pitfalls of complexity editing 8. What does a mental map tell us? a. where things are supposed to be in on-screen space p. 323> b. where things are supposed to be in on- and off-screen space c. how to quickly identify jump cuts d. how to locate the next shot
e. where things are supposed to be in off-screen space 9. What happens when the cameras shoot from both sides of the motion vector line? a. the subject will be seen moving in the same direction p. 323> b. the subject will be shown moving in opposite directions c. the subject will be seen moving toward the opposite camera d. the subject will be seen moving away from the camera e. the principles of complexity editing will be violated 10. Which of the following would be a violation of the ethics of editing? a. using stock footage of snow on a weather report b. showing a camera operator with camera as a cutaway p. 328> c. cutting the second part of a senator s statement that started with however d. inserting close-up reaction shots of a reporter that were shot immediately after an interview e. adding gunfire to the sound track of a restaged World War I battle scene
CHAPTER 14 VISUAL EFFECTS Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which is the most accurate description of digital shrinking? p.000> a. making the video image gradually smaller while keeping the entire picture content and aspect ratio intact b. reducing the size of the foreground objects relative to the background objects c. reducing the size of the background relative to the foreground d. trimming the picture by making the frame continuously smaller e. cropping 2. If the key mechanism malfunctions during a newscast, how can you still use C.G. titles to identify people whose pictures appear on the screen? a. through an internal key b. through a matte key c. through a soft wipe d. through a chroma key p. 334> e. through a superimposition 3. What do we call the key effect when the letters of the title key are filled with a specific color? a. internal key b. chroma key p. 335> c. matte key d. digital key e. analog key 4. When lighting the colored background of a chroma-key area (usually a blue or green drop), what needs your special attention? a. that the middle of the drop is brightly illuminated with the edges kept
dark p. 336> b. that the drop is evenly illuminated with floodlights c. that all lights have yellow gels d. that only the floor is illuminated, without any spill onto the drop e. that only the person or object in the foreground is illuminated 5. You intend to chroma-key the president of a large manufacturing company over a picture of the new plant. You notice that during the key the president s outline against the background picture is not sharp, but tears and occasionally breaks up. What is the reason for this breakup? a. the camera is not white-balanced b. the camera lens is set at too high an ƒ-stop p. 336> c. the subject is too close to the backdrop, picking up the color reflections of the chroma-key background d. the subject is wearing the same color as the chroma-key background e. the light level on the backdrop is too high 6. How can you achieve a split-screen effect? p. 340> a. by stopping a horizontal wipe midway b. by stopping a superimposition midway c. by using horizontal DVE supers d. by using vertical DVE supers e. by using a beam splitter 7. Which statement most accurately reflects the relationship between digital and analog effects? a. when using digital effects, all analog effects must be converted p. 341> b. digital effects can be combined with analog effects c. digital effects must be converted into analog effects d. only analog effects from the camera can be used with digital effects e. digital effects and analog effects cannot be used simultaneously 8. What system do you need to achieve a cube spin effect? a. analog switcher p. 346> b. DVE equipment
c. C.G. d. an actual rotating cube model e. ESS 9. The director suggests using a gobo rather than a digital effect to make fashion models appear in a picture frame. The director claims that it will give them more camera flexibility. Which arrangement would best create such a gobo effect? a. a cucoloris in a pattern projector b. an analog switcher c. a soft wipe p. 350> d. an actual picture frame hung in front of the camera e. a lens prism 10. When asked to produce starlike light rays emanating from high-intensity light sources, what do you need to do? p. 351> a. attach a star filter to the camera lens b. program the effect in the graphics generator c. attach star filters to the lighting instruments d. defocus the lens e. attach an image inverter prism to the lens
CHAPTER 15 DESIGN Multiple-Choice Questions 1. How does the aspect ratio of HDTV compare with that of the standard television screen? a. the HDTV aspect ratio is more vertically stretched b. the aspect ratio of HDTV is digital p. 357> c. the HDTV aspect ratio is more horizontally stretched d. the HDTV aspect ratio of the entire frame can be changed from horizontal to vertical e. the standard television aspect ratio is more horizontally stretched 2. To guarantee that the entire picture information is visible on the home screen, within what space must it be kept? a. the camera viewfinder b. the CCU monitor c. the scanning area d. the C.G. display area p. 357> e. the essential area 3. Occasionally, a feature movie will be shown on television with black bars at the top and bottom of the screen. Why is this done? p. 360> a. to show the entire aspect ratio of the wide-screen movie on the standard TV screen b. to make sure the credits can be read c. to focus viewer attention within the essential area d. to convey that the program we are watching was originally filmed e. to enable the use of computer graphics in the movie 4. What is the major factor that determines the aesthetic energy of a color? a. hue b. brightness p. 365> c. saturation d. wavelength
e. color temperature 5. What is pillarboxing? a. to shoot a row of pillars with a narrow-angle lens b. to shoot a row of pillars with a wide-angle lens p. 367> c. to block the sides of a 16x9 screen to create a 4x3 aspect ratio d. to block the top and the bottom of 4x3 screen to accommodate a 16x9 aspect ratio e. a specific box wipe What are the three major color attributes? a. hue, saturation, color strength p.000> b. hue, saturation, brightness c. color, brightness, depth d. hue, brightness, shade e. hue, saturation, tint 7. What is the most versatile hanging background for television production? a. drop b. softwall flat c. drape d. ground row p. 372> e. cyclorama 8. What items should a prop list contain? a. hand props only b. hand props and set props p. 376> c. hand props, set props, and set dressings d. set dressings and costumes but not makeup e. set props only 9. What major elements should a floor plan show?
a. scenery but not props p. 377> b. scenery and major set props c. lighting and camera position d. set dressings and platforms e. set props, set dressings, and blocking 10. Where in the studio is the best place to erect a small temporary interview set? a. in the center b. in a corner p. 378> c. where you can find appropriate lighting triangles d. where the cameras are e. as close to the cyc as possible CHAPTER 16 PRODUCTION PEOPLE
Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which statement best describes the role of the director? a. to translate the idea for a program into a script b. to schedule the production times and facilities c. to manage the production budget d. to coordinate with financial supporters and writers agents p. 385> e. to transform the script into specific video and audio images 2. If you are talent on a production, who would most likely call you to confirm your show schedule? a. production assistant p. 385> b. producer c. assistant director d. executive producer e. floor manager 3. Which statement most accurately describes the function of the producer? a. to translate the script into specific video and audio images b. to design the set p. 385> c. to oversee and coordinate all preproduction, production, and postproduction activities d. to prepare a floor plan e. to engage in postproduction editing 4. The executive producer has complained about the static look and uneven audio of a recent production. Who is ultimately responsible for correcting such problems? a. producer b. art director c. lighting director p. 385> d. director e. technical director 5. When you direct a television newscast, you will work closely with a news producer. What is the major role of the producer in a news department?
a. editing videotape according to the reporter s notes b. being in charge of all news operations c. assigning reporters to specific events to be covered p. 389> d. selecting and deciding on placement of stories in a newscast e. running the teleprompter 6. How should television performers visualize their audiences? a. as everyone out there in TV land b. as network executives who will buy the program p. 389> c. as a small friendly group or someone they know d. as the production crew in their underwear e. as an imaginary audience seated in the studio 7. Unless told otherwise, which opening cue should you most likely take? a. tally light on the camera p. 392> b. floor manager s cue or I.F.B. c. S.A. system d. at the point indicated on the script e. when the opening music fades 8. How should you react to the floor manager s cues? a. not at all if you think the floor manager gave you the wrong cue b. take it, then double-check with the director c. nod discreetly and follow it immediately p. 392> d. follow it immediately e. follow it after the director says action 9. What is the main problem when the camera-mounted teleprompter is positioned too close to the talent? a. the floor manager can no longer read the prompter b. it requires a camera light c. it requires that the lens be in the wide-angle position p. 397> d. the talent s eye movement shows on the video screen
e. the talent s makeup becomes too noticeable 10. Which element should be avoided in on-camera clothing? a. bright pink b. rhinestones and/or sparkly jewelry p. 405> c. narrow, highly contrasting patterns d. highly saturated colors e. necklaces
CHAPTER 17 PRODUCING Multiple-Choice Questions 1. How would you describe the brainstorming process of getting ideas? a. as generating only relevant ideas until you have at least five good ones p. 411> b. as generating and accepting all ideas without value judgments c. as critically discussing a few selected ideas d. as discussing the creative process e. as asking directors which ideas are easiest to produce 2. Which statement describes a characteristic of the effect-to-cause model? a. starts with a content expert who generates an idea for a program b. works on the premise that television is primarily a distribution system p. 412> c. starts with the desired communication effect on the target audience d. involves only production people who translate an idea into a program e. relies primarily on content and medium experts 3. How are medium requirements primarily determined? a. by the budget p. 412> b. by the process message c. by the director d. by the unions e. by the production manager 4. What does an above-the-line television budget refer to? a. incidental expenses b. expenses for technical personnel p. 414> c. expenses for nontechnical personnel d. the yearly budget for the production company e. the projected advertising revenue 5. What is the best way to approach the preparation of a production budget?
a. include expenses that might occur when things go wrong b. make the budget attractive by underestimating some expenses c. protect yourself against cost overruns by overestimating all expenses by 10 percent p. 419> d. be realistic, but add a contingency of at least 15 percent e. leave blank any expenses likely to change before the production is completed 6. Which of the following would require copyright clearance before you could include it in your coverage of the graduation ceremony? a. the school band playing the school song b. shots of students at the ceremony p. 427> c. reading a passage from a book by Martin Luther King Jr. d. the valedictorian s speech e. the college president s closing remarks 7. A local television station broadcast the graduation ceremony live. The rating service shows that out of 450,000 total television sets in your market, 98,000 were actually in use (tuned in to a variety of programs), and 35,000 actually tuned in to your program. What are the rating and the share figures for your program? (Round to the nearest whole number.) Congratulations, your program was a success! a. rating of 8, share of 95 b. rating of 98, share of 20 c. rating of 18, share of 36 d. rating of 18, share of 34 p. 427> e. rating of 8, share of 36
CHAPTER 18 THE DIRECTOR IN PREPRODUCTION Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What is the most important reason why the director should have a thorough understanding of the process message? p. 433> a. to help decide on the most effective medium translation of the script b. to know how to mark the script c. to schedule production facilities d. to pick crew members e. to be able to play effectively to the general audience 2. Which of the following is normally the most effective way the director can communicate with the entire crew on production day? a. via e-mail b. via the PA c. via the floor manager p. 434> d. via a brief production meeting e. via the AD 3. You are assigned to direct the live coverage of your college president s recent trip to China. What type of script format will you most likely use? a. fully scripted p. 434> b. semiscripted c. show format d. fact sheet e. rundown sheet 4. If in the opening sequence of a partial script you see a large 2 followed by a large 3 on the next line, what does this indicate? a. that the guests are labeled by number b. that the guests are on VTRs 2 and 3 c. that cameras 2 and 3 should be on standby p. 439> d. a cut from camera 2 to camera 3 e. a dissolve from camera 1 to camera 2